Posted by jennifer on May 08, 2008 at 19:04:58:
I wanted to run a hypothetical situation by the group. There's a mobile home a lady wants to sell but she does not have title in her name. She bought it from a friend a year ago, and that friend bought it from the owner of record.
I'm in TX where they do Statement of Ownership and Location (SOL). So, titles are not really used here.
In any case, she has the physical title from the owner of record who signed it over (this was passed down from each buyer) but it was not notarized. The place for the buyer's name is blank.
Now, the park manager who referred the seller to me told me there is a loophole. She said that when filling out the SOL here in TX, they don't notarize the seller's part - only the buyer's. The park manager told me another investor came across the same situation and just signed the seller's name on the SOL form. Title got transferred with no problem.
Is this a loophole? It seems pretty wrong to sign someone else's name on a document. Just wanted to run this by the group.
Thanks for your help!
Jennifer
- Re: hypothetical situation Tony Colella 11:01:38 05/11/08 (1)
- Re: hypothetical situation Jennifer 18:29:39 05/12/08 (0)
- Re: hypothetical situation Todd 23:18:40 05/08/08 (0)